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    #1

    Feb 14, 2010, 12:57 PM
    1 mill = $(1/1000) can be expressed as $(1/1000)/(1 mill).
    Hello:

    1 mill = $(1/1000) can be expressed as $(1/1000)/(1 mill).

    How does 1 mill = $(1/1000) becomes $(1/1000)/(1 mill)?
    morgaine300's Avatar
    morgaine300 Posts: 6,561, Reputation: 276
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    #2

    Feb 14, 2010, 09:00 PM



    Divide both sides by the 1 mill.



    Since the left canceled out, you end up with:



    Are you using this for taxes? And like trying to work things backwards? I think there's probably an easier way to do it. For one thing, instead of using 1/1000 which makes it look all icky, you can move the decimal three places to the left. Like 26 mills would be .026. A mill is one tenth of a cent, or .001. That also isn't the only way to do it and isn't the way I do it.
    KISS's Avatar
    KISS Posts: 12,510, Reputation: 839
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    #3

    Feb 14, 2010, 09:09 PM

    One mill can also mean 0.001". Typical machinists talk. Thousanths is too hard to say.
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    morgaine300 Posts: 6,561, Reputation: 276
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    #4

    Feb 14, 2010, 09:48 PM

    Machinists and "financists" are not supposed to have things in common. That's like sacrilege or something. :D
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